• 1. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)

     determine pathways for data
    retime and retransmit data signals
        manage data flows
    

    2. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)

     define the structure of layer specific PDU’s 
        outline the functions necessary for communications between layers 
        require layer dependent encapsulations 
    

    3. What are two functions of encapsulation? (Choose two.)

    identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication 
     ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device
    

    4. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?

     supports error detection 
      5. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)
        Physical 
     Data Link
      6. What is a PDU?
        a layer specific encapsulation
    

    7. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?

     originate data flow 
     8.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”

      an end device
    
    

    9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

    Network B — WAN
     Network C — LAN
     Network A – LAN
    

    10. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)

     A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.
     The network is administered by a single organization.
        A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.
      11.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?

     multiplexing
     
    

    12. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?

    to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end device
    

    13. What device is considered an intermediary device?

        switch
    

    14. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the area B?

     intermediary
    

    15 Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?

        LAN
      16. Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?
       network
      17. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?
         18.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

        E, F, H, I, J
    

    19. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?

        The physical address is added.
    
    

    20. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?

       network media control
    

    21. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?

        application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical
     
    

    1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for filetransfers between a client and a server? FTP 2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.) applications services

    3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.) centralized administration security is easier to enforce 4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS? temporarily holds resolved entries used by the server to resolve names 5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address? DNS 6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.) DNS SMTP POP 7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.) acts as both a client and server within the same communication. hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files. can be used in client-server networks. 8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.) HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access 9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.) MTA SMTP 10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet? does not support encryption 11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.) receives email from the client’s MUA passes email to the MDA for final delivery uses SMTP to route email between servers 12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.) HTTP HTTPS 13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.) Security is difficult to enforce. A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server. 14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network? application 15.

    Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5? 80 16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.) decentralized resources resource sharing without a dedicated server 17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks? SMB 18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.) initiate data exchanges may upload data to servers 19. What is the role of the OSI application layer? provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network 20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?

    uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service


    1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

     Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
        Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
    
    

    2 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?

        R1 will install a RIP route using network A in its routing table because the path cost from RIP is lower than EIGRP.
      3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
    sends subnet mask information in routing updates
        allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
      4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
        show ip route
      5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
        EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.
      6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
        the network is using a hub and spoke topology
     the network is using a flat design
      7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
        It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.
      8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
        They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
      9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
        shortest-path first calculations
    

    10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?

        Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.
      11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged?
        The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.
    

    12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)

        EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
     OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.
     
    

    13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).

     increased security
        the administrator maintains control over routing
      14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
    

    R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0

        A packet destined for host 192.168.252.2 will be forwarded out the interface connected to network 209.165.201.0/24.
         15. What will be the result of the following commands?
        A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of “C”.
      16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
     The administrative distance of this route is 1.
     17.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?

        The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.
      18. The following line of code is present in the routing table:
     O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
    
    

    19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?

     OSPF can be used between the routers.
     
    

    20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?

     3
    

    21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?

        The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.
    
    

    22. When multiple routing protocols have a route to the same destination network, what determines which route is installed in the routing table?

     lowest administrative distance
     
    

    1.

    Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.) The local host is using three client sessions. The local host is using web sessions to a remote server. 2. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server? 80 3. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information? source and destination 4. Which is an important characteristic of UDP? minimal delays in data delivery 5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1take as a result? reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged 6. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed? session establishment 7. Refer to the exhibit. The initial TCP exchange of data between two hosts is shown in the exhibit. Assuming an initial sequence number of 0, what sequence number will be included in Acknowledgment 2 if Segment 6 is lost? 3431 8. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer? to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data 9. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destinationout of order, what will happen to the original message? The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination. 10. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications? 0 to 1023 11. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery? UDP 12. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.) low overhead connectionless 13. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination? window size 14. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data? source port 15. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment? to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application 16. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.) identifies the communicating applications identifies multiple conversations between the hosts 17. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination? flow control session establishment numbering and sequencing 18. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately? transport 19. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)

      • This contains a Telnet request.
      • This is a TCP header.

    20. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?

      • TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.

    21. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next? Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1.

    1. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)

     RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
     Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.
    

    2. What does a router running RIP do first with a new route that is received from an advertisement?

        adjusts the metric for the new route to show the added distance for the route
     
    

    3 Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?

     3
    

    4. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?

        Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.
     .
    

    5. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?

     The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.
      6.
    

    The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?

        count to infinity
    

    7. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)

        EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
        EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.
      8. Which event will cause a triggered update?
        a route is installed in the routing table
      9. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
        will send out an update if there is a failure of a link
    

    10. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).

     broadcast are sent to 0.0.0.0
     
     updates contain the entire network topology
    
    

    11. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)

        EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
        EIGRP updates are partial.
      12. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
        inconsistent routing tables
     incorrectly configured static routes
      13. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
       16
     14. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
           instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes
    

    15. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?

        The path will be router A -> router D -> router E
      16. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
        They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbor
      17. What is a routing loop?
        a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination
     
    


    18. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?

        It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update
      19. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
     RIPv1
     EIGRP
        RIPv2
    

    20. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three).

     routing loops
     inconsistent traffic forwarding
        inconsistent routing table entries
      21. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
        limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded
     
    

    1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?

    destination network address
     
    

    2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

       source and destination IP address
    

    3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

       The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
      4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
        time-to-live
      5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
        network portion
      6.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?

       192.133.219.1
    

    7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

    The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
     The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
      8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
       identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
    

    9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?

        static
    

    10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)

        The router discards the packet.
        The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
    

    11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)

        purpose
        geographic location
     ownership
    

    12. What is a component of a routing table entry?

        the next-hop address
    

    13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)

     router
       firewall
      14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
        performance degradation
     security issues
        host identification
      15.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?

       4
     516. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
        If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
        If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
     If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
    

    17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?

       10.10.10.6
    
    

    18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)

     Replace S2 with a router.
        Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
      19.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)

     192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
      
       192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
     20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
        provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
        consume bandwidth to exchange route information
    
    

    21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?

     A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
    

    1. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

       3
    

    2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?

    255.255.255.192
     
    

    3 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server’s properties to allow connectivity to the network?

        IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33 
    

    4. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.

          /27 
     
    

    5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

       NAT is required for the host A network.
    

    6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?

       255.255.255.0
    
    

    7. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?

        This is a network address.
    
    

    8. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)

        is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
        varies in length
     is used to forward packets
    
    

    9. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?

       10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
     
    

    10. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

       172.16.192.160
     
    

    11.

    Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?

        Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
     
    

    12. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)

     The router will discard the packet.
        The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host. 
    
    

    13. Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)

     larger address space 
        data types and classes of service 
     authentication and encryption 
     
    

    14. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?

     binary ANDing
    

    15. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?

        expanded addressing capabilities
      16. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
       10.35.66.70 
     192.168.99.5 
     172.18.88.90 
     
    

    17. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)

        Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
       Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
     
    

    18. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

       172.16.4.155 /26 
     172.16.4.193 /26 
     
    

    19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?

        a network
     
    

    20. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?

        The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
    

    21. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)

        servers 
     network printers 
     routers 
     
    

    1. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

     non-deterministic
     less overhead
        collisions exist
      
    

    2. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

        facilitate the entry and exit of data on media
      
    

    3.

    Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

         8
     
    

    4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

        Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes. 
    


    5.

    Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for http://www.server?

       00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
      
    

    6. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

     They are 48 binary bits in length.
     They are considered physical addresses.
     They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.
      
    

    7.

    Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

        source MAC – Fa0/1 on RouterB
     source IP – PC
      
    

    8. What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)

        media sharing
       logical topology
      
    

    9. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

       is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros 
    


    10. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

     Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
        Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
      
    

    11. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

        Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
       Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
    

    Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.


    12. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

        MAC
      
    

    13. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)

     Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
    defined as placement of data frames on the media
          Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
      
    

    14. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

        The media access control protocol can be very simple.
      
    

    15. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)

        The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.
        The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network. 
    


    16. What is a function of the data link layer?

        provides for the exchange data over a common local media 
    


    17. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

        the geographic scope of the network
        the physical layer implementation
     the number of hosts to be interconnected 
    


    18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

        support frame error detection
      19. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
        physical topology
      
    

    20.

    Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

        Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
     
    

    1. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

     backbone cable
      2. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
     RJ-45
    

    3. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

        when connecting a host to a switch
     
    

    4. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?

     the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
     
    

    5. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?

        Physical
    

    6. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?

        OTDR
    
    

    7. XYZ Company is installing new cable runs on their data network. What two types of cable would most commonly be used for new runs? (Choose two.)

        Cat5 UTP
     Cat6 UTP
    
    

    8. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

        Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
    
    

    9. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

     goodput
        throughput
        bandwidth
    

    10. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?

        crossover cable
      11. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
        fiber
    
    

    12. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?



    13. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

     wireless
     
    

    14. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

     It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
        It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling
    

    15. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

        generally uses lasers as the light source
    

    16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

     more host mobility
     
    

    17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

        the twisting of the wires in the cable
    
    

    18. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?

     create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
     
    

    1 In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

        Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.
    

    2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

        Physical layer
        Data-link layer
    



    3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

     the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame
        the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
    
    

    4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

     addressing
     error detection
     frame delimiting
     5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
     The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
    

    6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

        makes the connection with the upper layers
     identifies the source and destination applications
        determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting
    

    7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

        Logical Link
      8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
        A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.
    

    9 Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?

        network layer packet
      10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
        Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
        A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.
    

    11. Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

     Collisions can decrease network performance.
      12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
        network access
    

    13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?

        resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
      14.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

     No collisions will occur on this link..
    

    15 Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

        A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
     A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
      16. Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
     dynamically assigned 
        layer 3 address
     contains a 3 byte OUI
     17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
        minimizing of collisions
        increase in the throughput of communications
    

    18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

        copper UTP
        optical fiber
     
    

    19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

       BA
    

    20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

        any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
      21.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. What command was executed on a host computer to produce the results shown?

        arp –a
    

    .1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)

        connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
       connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds
    

    2. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)

       They segment broadcast domains.
     They interconnect different network technologies.
     Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
      3.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?

        hub
      4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
        UTP
    

    5.

    Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)

        Five broadcast domains are present.
     Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
        Five networks are shown.
      6. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco’s V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
        DB 60
     Winchester 15 pin
        smart serial
    

    7. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?

       2046
     8.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?

         host B would be successful, host A would fail  
    

    9. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?

       192.168.3.54
    

    10. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

        Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
        Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
     Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.
    

    11. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?

        255.255.255.224
    

    12. Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?

        switch
    

    13. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?

       3
     
    

    14. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?

     loss of signal strength as distance increases
      15. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
        rollover cable
      16. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
     greater distances per cable run
        limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
        greater bandwidth potential
      17.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?

       255.255.255.224
     18. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
       255.255.255.0
     19. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
        rollover
      20. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
        console interface
    

    21. What are two common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose two.)

        the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
     the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
    

    22. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?

        router
    

    23 Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

     1
    

    24. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)

        cable color code association
    
     the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
     the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
    

    1. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?

        UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
    

    2. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?

    as the commands are entered
      3.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

     enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0
    

    enable password 7 14141E0A1F17 line console 0 password 7 020507550A 4. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?

        Console
      5.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?

     RouterB(config)# enable secret class
    

    RouterB(config)# line vty 0 RouterB(config-line)# password cisco RouterB(config-line)# login

      6. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
        show interfaces
      7.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)

        global configuration mode
        interface configuration mode
      8. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
        Router(config)# hostname Fontana
    

    9. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

     Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
     Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
        Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
      10.
    

    Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?

        IP assigned to the serial port on Router B
    

    11. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?

        NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
      12. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)
     show startup-config
      13. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
     hot keys
    context-sensitive
        command syntax check
    

    14. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)

        The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
        The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.
    

    15. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?

        Ctrl-Shift-6
      16.
    

    The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?

              Issue a show interfaces command on router C.
    

    17. In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?

        Flash
    

    19. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

        SSH
    

    Đề 1 1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture? 0060.7320.D632 (chọn) 4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A? Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1 (chọn) 5. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this? Host X and host Y belong to different networks. (chọn) 7. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.) 196.1.105.6 (chọn) 132.11.9.99 (chọn) 46.1.1.97 (chọn) 8. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.) TCP and UDP manage communication between multiple applications. (chọn) TCP acknowledges received data. (chọn) UDP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data. (chọn) 9. HeadshotRefer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network? point-to-point (chọn) 11. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured. (chọn) 12. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission? It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions. (chọn) 13. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this? 192.168.0.250 (chọn) 14. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. Which three segments use Cable 2? (Choose three.) Segment 2 (chọn) HeadshotSegment 5 (chọn) Segment 6 (chọn) 16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the IP configuration that is displayed? (Choose three.) The assigned address is a private address. (chọn) The prefix of the computer address is /26. (chọn) 19. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network? router (chọn) 21. HeadshotRefer to the exhibit. In a network, host A is sending data segments to host B. The flow control of the segments that are being exchanged is displayed. Which two statements are true about this communication? (Choose two.) The initial window size is determined via the two-way handshake. (chọn) Acknowledgment number 3001 indicates that host A will send the next segment with sequence number 3001(chọn) 23. Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data? transport layer (chọn) 24. What are two functions of the data link layer? (Choose two.) It segments and reorders the data. (chọn) It controls how data is placed onto the media. (chọn) 26 Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram? 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA (chọn) 28. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has connected the PC to the switch using a Category 6 UTP cable. Which two statements are true about this connection? (Choose two.) The transmit pin of the cable is terminated to the receive pin. (chọn) The maximum supported bandwidth is 1000 Mb/s. (chọn) 29. Refer to the exhibit. A host is using NAT to connect to the Internet. Which three IP addresses enable this connection? (Choose three.) 10.1.1.37 (chọn) 10.1.1.39 (chọn) 10.1.1.60 (chọn) 31. An organization wants to create a subnet of the IP network 172.16.0.0. This subnet will accommodate 1000 hosts. Which subnet mask should be assigned to this network? 255.255.248.0 (chọn) 32. Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to hub 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway can allow this host to function in the network? IP address: 172.16.31.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35 (chọn) 33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server configured at the host? (Choose two.) 10.10.10.32 (chọn) 192.168.1.5 (chọn) Headshotthe IP address of the website resolver1.xyz.local 34. Which OSI layer offers ordered data reconstruction services? transport layer (chọn) 35. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many logical address ranges are required in this topology? 5 (chọn) 36. The network administrator wants to install a private application on a server. Which range of port numbers is normally assigned to this application to make it accessible by clients? 0 to 1023 (chọn) 38. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices? Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable(chọn) 40. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts? the network portion of the IP address (chọn) 41. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.) The destination port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated. (chọn) The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol. (chọn) 42. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is accessing multiple servers. Which combination of port number and address will uniquely identify a particular process running on a specific server? IP address of the server and port number of the service (chọn) 45. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, PC1 sends a message to PC2. The frame received at PC2 is shown. What information in this frame determines the correct destination application? destination and source process numbers (chọn) 46. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization? 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255 (chọn) 48. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.) 10.1.12.113/28 (chọn) 10.1.11.5/27 (chọn) 10.1.11.97/27 (chọn) 49. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet? 192.168.1.254 (chọn) 50. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.) It uniquely identifies each host. (chọn) It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks. (chọn) It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address. (chọn) 2. (chương 9) What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.) It monitors the media for presence of a data signal. (chọn) After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired. (chọn) A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred. (chọn) 3. (chương 11) Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong? router interface fa0/0 (chọn) 6 (chương 10) What is the result of using the clock rate 56000 command at the serial interface of the router? The interface is configured as a DCE device. (chọn) Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device? It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified. (chọn) 15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.) Two logical address ranges are required. (chọn) A single broadcast domain is present. (chọn) 17. Which password restricts Telnet access to the router? enable (co the la cau nay) VTY (chọn) 18.(chương 11) Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection? It provides out-of-band console access. (chọn) 20 (chương 11) . Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem? Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0. (chọn) 22. (chương 11) Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access? auxiliary (chọn) 27. (chương 9) Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch? The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa0/19 immediately. (chọn) 30. (chương 11) Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts? Use the tracert command at the host. (chọn) 37. (chương 11) Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.) Router(config)# line vty 0 4 Router(config-line)# password arj15 Router(config-line)# login This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command. (chọn) This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router. (chọn) 39. (chương 9) Which two types of media are useful for connecting two devices separated by a distance of 500 meters? (Choose two.) 1000 BASE-TX (chọn) 1000 BASE-SX (chọn) 43.(chương 11) A network technician wants to configure an IP address on a router interface by using the ip address 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 command. Which prompt should the technician see when entering this command? Router(config-if)# (chọn) 44 (chương 11) .Refer to the exhibit. Host X is unable communicate with host Y. Which command can be run at host X to determine which intermediary device is responsible for this failure? tracert 192.168.1.1 (chọn) 47.(chương 11) What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router? . The contents of NVRAM will change. (chọn) . When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command? when the interface is functioning as a DCE device 2. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A? IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17 3. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network? address translation

    4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured? leaving Dallas 5. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers? 0 to 1023 6. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ? Switch-6J#

    7. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational? 192.168.254.1

    8. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to reach host B on the remote network. A technician attempted to ping the local gateway and the ping was successful. To verify the host configuration, the technician issued the ipconfig command. What is the likely cause of the problem? The default gateway on host A is incorrectly configured. 9. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization? 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255 10. Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access? router 11. Which OSI layer manages data segments? transport layer 12. Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.) 1000 BASE-TX 1000 BASE-SX 13. To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands: Router(config)# line console 0 Router(config-line)#password j1mdi2 Router(config-line)# login What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.) Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password. The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.

    14. Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly. The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown. However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem? Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.

    15. Refer to the exhibit. When host A sends a frame addressed for host D, which hosts will receive the frame? only host D

    16. Refer to the exhibit. Communication for hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this? The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses. 17. A user enters http://www.cisco.com/web1.htm in the address line of a browser. Which statement is true about this transaction? The “http” portion indicates the protocol that is being used.

    18. The tracert 10.1.3.2 command was issued on computer A. Computer A can ping other addresses on the local subnet. Computer A sent the first ICMP packet toward computer B with a TTL value of 1. A protocol analyzer that was running on computer B showed that the packet never reached its destination. Why did the packet not reach the destination? The TTL for the packet was decreased to zero by R1. 19. A routing issue has occurred in your internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error? switch 21. What can the user do from the command prompt, Router(config-line)# ?

    Configure one of the physical or virtual lines.

    22. Which option shows the PDU that contains the Layer 3 source and destination addressing for a packet? Correct answer is option (image) 3. 23. Refer to the exhibit. The ping 127.0.0.1 command is issued on the local host. What do the ping results indicate? The TCP/IP stack on the local host operates properly. 24. Which topology divides the collision domain and provides full media bandwidth to the hosts in the network? Correct answer is option (image) 3.swich voi swich

    25. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies the network address, range of host addresses, and the broadcast address for the network that contains host A? Correct answer is option (image) 3.172.16.32.0 172.16.47.255 26. A technician is setting up a workgroup for six users and wants to allow users to share files without setting up a server. Which application layerprotocol will provide for peer-to-peer file sharing in a workgroup? SMB 27. Which router component will have contents erased when the command erase startup-config is issued? NVRAM

    28. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1 has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next? Host2 sends a segment with the ACK flag = 1, SYN flag = 1 to Host1. 29. How many host addresses may be assigned when using the 128.107.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0? 2046 30. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is able to access resources on the local LAN but is unable to access any resources on the Internet. What is the likely cause of this problem? The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host. 31. What is described by the network access layer of the TCP/IP model? rules for the handoff from the internet layer to the network access protocols 32. Which two factors contribute to the increased throughput when all nodes of a LAN are connected to a switch instead of a hub? (Choose two.) full-duplex operation collision-free environment 33. Which application layer protocol allows administrators to log into a server from remote locations and control a server as though logged in locally? Telnet 34. A network technician has made a UTP cable that is terminated as T568A on one end and T568B on the opposite end. What type of cable has been constructed? crossover 35. Which application belongs to the category of the client/server model? using Telnet to access a router


    36. Refer to the exhibit. Which two layers of the OSI model describe the same functions as the transport and internet layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

    transport layer network layer 37. What command can be used to troubleshoot domain name resolution issues? nslookup

    38. Refer to the exhibit. For connecting two routers with an Ethernet crossover cable, which interface should be used? C 39. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?

    enable secret 40. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.) 196.1.105.6 132.11.9.99 46.1.1.97 41. A network administrator is configuring several switches for a network. The switches have similar configurations and only minor differences. The administrator wants to save all commands that are issued on the first switch to a text file for editing. Which transfer option should be selected in HyperTerminal? Correct answer is option (image) 3. Capture text

    42. Which option represents a point-to-point logical topology diagram? Correct answer is option (image) 4. 2router 2 maytinh 43. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.) The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol. This exchange is part of the three-way handshake. 44. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration? instant messaging 45. Which prompt is associated with the privileged exec mode? R1# 46. What is the effect of the command copy running-config tftp?

    copies the configuration currently in RAM to a remote machine 47. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of network design is shown? peer-to-peer 48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using Telnet. Which statement is true about this connection? The connection is made through a VTY session on the router. 49. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection? rollover cable 50. A technician makes several changes to the running configuration on a router, but the desired results are not achieved. The technician issues the reload command. What action will be taken by the router? The user will be prompted to save changes before the router restarts.


    1. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command? when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

    2. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.) Router(config)# line vty 0 3 Router(config-line)# password c13c0 Router(config-line)# login The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access. . Access will be permitted for Telnet using “c13c0″ as the password.

    3. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.) 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 4. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created? enable secret

    5. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A? IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17 6. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network? address translation 7. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ? Switch-6J#

    8. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational? 192.168.254.1

    9. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial tracert packet from PC1? London 10. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts? the network portion of the IP address

    10. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts? Use the tracert command at the host.


    11. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram? 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA


    12. Refer to the exhibit. The router of the company failed and was replaced. After the replacement, hosts C and D in the Education office are able to ping each other, but they are unable to access the hosts in the Accounts office. What is the likely cause of the problem? The subnet mask at the fa0/1 interface of the router is incorrectly entered.


    13. Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this? . The gateway addresses are network addresses.


    14. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture? 0060.7320.D632

    15. Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.) The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port. The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.

    16. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame with the destination MAC address as FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. What action will the switch take for this frame? It will drop the frame. It will send the frame back to host A. It will send the frame to all hosts except host A. It will forward the frame to the default gateway.

    17. Well-known services and applications use which range of TCP/UDP port numbers? 0 to 1023 18. Which three IPv4 addresses represent subnet broadcast addresses? (Choose three.) 192.168.4.63 /26 192.168.4.191 /26 192.168.4.95 /27 19. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.) It uses a hierarchical structure. It uniquely identifies each host. A portion of the address is used to identify the network.

    20. Which OSI layer addressing is required to route packets between two networks? Layer 3 21. What type of network is maintained if a server takes no dedicated role in the network? peer-to-peer

    22. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is requesting a web page from the web server. Which option represents the socket to which the request is made? 10.0.0.130:80

    23. A routing issue has occurred in your internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error? router


    24. Which statement describes the correct use of addresses to deliver an e-mail message from HostB to the e-mail service that is running on ServerA? Router B uses a Layer 3 network address to route the packet.


    25. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is configured with the correct IP address for the default gateway of the router R1 FastEthernet0/1 interface. How will a packet that is sent from host A to host B be handled by the devices on the network? R1 will forward the packet to its default gateway, the next hop router R2. R2 will forward the packet to the directly connected network 10.1.1.0/24. 26. Which option correctly identifies the interface or interfaces used to connect the router to a CSU/DSU for WAN connectivity? This correct answer is image 4 ( last image ).

    co 2 cong seria


    27. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to reach host B on the remote network. A technician attempted to ping the local gateway and the ping was successful. To verify the host configuration, the technician issued the ipconfig command. What is the likely cause of the problem? The default gateway on host A is incorrectly configured. 29. How many host addresses may be assigned when using the 128.107.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0? 2046 30. Which application layer protocol allows administrators to log into a server from remote locations and control a server as though logged in locally? Telnet 31. During the encapsulation process, what is the PDU of the internet layer? packet 32. Which service is used when the nslookup command is issued on a computer? DNS

    33. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician creates equal-sized subnets of network 192.168.2.0/24 using the subnet mask 255.255.255.224. If the technician wishes to calculate the number of host addresses in each subnet by using the formula that is shown in the exhibit, what value will be used for n? 5 34. What are the default terminal emulation software settings when configuring a Cisco device through a console port? Bits per second: 9600 Data bits: 8 Parity: None Stop bits: 1 Flow control: None 35. In a packet-switched data network, what is used to reassemble the packets in the correct order at the destination device? sequence number

    36. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator tries to test the connectivity between routers R1 and R2, but the attempt to ping is unsuccessful. Based on the show ip interface brief command outputs, what could be the possible cause of the problem? Interface S0/0/0 on router R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address. 37. Which router configuration mode will require user authentication if an administrator issues the enable secret command? privileged executive mode 38. Which location of router memory is cleared with the erase startup-config command? NVRAM 39. Which subnet mask should be used for a Class B network that is divided into subnets and will accommodate between 800 hosts and 1000 hosts? 255.255.252.0 40. Which two programs can be used to accomplish terminal emulation for configuring a router from the CLI through the console port? (Choose two.) HyperTerminal Minicom

    41. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B. What action can be preformed to correct the network issue? issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1


    42. Refer to the exhibit. A web browser running on host PC1 sends a request for a web page to the web server with an IP address 192.168.1.254/24. What sequence of steps will follow in order to establish the session before data can be exchanged? The session will be initiated using UDP. No additional acknowledgment will be required to establish the session. The session will be initiated using TCP. No additional acknowledgment will be required to establish the session. The session will be initiated using UDP. The returned web page will serve as an acknowledgment for session establishment. The session will be initiated using TCP. A three-way handshake must be successfully completed before the session is established.

    43. Which prompt is associated with the privileged exec mode? R1# 44. A user sees the command prompt: Router(config-if)# . What task can be performed at this mode?

    Configure individual interfaces.


    45. Refer to the exhibit. Interface Fa0/0 on router A is generating excessive broadcast traffic. Which LAN segments will affected by the excessive broadcasts? Only the 192.168.1.200/30 network will be affected.

    46. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router? The contents of NVRAM will change. 48. In a network design project, a network designer needs to select a device to provide collision free connections to 40 hosts on the LAN. Which device should be selected? switch 49. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration? instant messaging

    tác giả


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