1) Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)

ans: connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds

2) Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?

ans: console interface

3) What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)

ans: greater distances per cable run limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI greater bandwidth potential

4) A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?

ans: UTP

5) What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?

ans: loss of signal strength as distance increases

6) How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?

ans: 2046

7) Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?

ans: 255.255.255.0

8) A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?

ans: 255.255.255.224

9) What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?

ans: rollover

10) Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?

ans: router

11) Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?

ans: 192.168.3.54

12) Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?

ans: host B would be successful, host A would fail

13) Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco's V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)

ans: DB 60 Winchester 15 pin smart serial

14) Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?

ans: 3

15) What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)

ans: direct configuration of the device the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port

16) Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)

ans: They segment broadcast domains. They interconnect different network technologies. Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.

17) Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?

ans: hub

18) Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

ans: 1

19) Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)

ans: Five broadcast domains are present. Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router. Five networks are shown.

20) To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?

ans: rollover cable

21) Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)

ans: Segment 1 uses a patch cable. Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling. Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.

22) Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?

ans: 255.255.255.224

23) Refer to the exhibit. A student is setting up a home network primarily used for extensive file transfers, streaming video, and gaming. Which network device is best suited to these types of activities in the topology shown?

ans: switch 24) 1.Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?

UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1

2. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?

• • as the commands are entered

3.

Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?

enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0

enable password 7 14141E0A1F17

line console 0

password 7 020507550A

4. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?

Console

5.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?

RouterB(config)# enable secret class

RouterB(config)# line vty 0

RouterB(config-line)# password cisco

RouterB(config-line)# login

6. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?

show interfaces

7.

Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)

privileged executive mode

enable mode

8. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?

Router(config)# hostname Fontana

9.

The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0

Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown

Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

10.

Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?

IP assigned to the serial port on Router B

11.

Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?

NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address

12. Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

show startup-config

show running-config

13. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)

hot keys

context-sensitive

command syntax check

14.

Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)

The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.

The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.

15. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?

Ctrl-Shift-6

16.

The connection between routers B and C has been successfully tested. However, after rebooting router C, the administrator noticed the response time between networks 10.10.3.0 and 10.10.4.0 is slower. Ping between the two routers is successful. A trace route indicates three hops from router B to router C. What else can be done to troubleshoot the problem?

Issue a show interfaces command on router C.

17. In a Cisco device, where is the IOS file stored prior to system startup?

Flash

18. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?

Option 1 Console

19. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

SSH 20) In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?

ans:

Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.

2) Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

ans:

Physical layer

Data-link layer

3) Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)

ans:

the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame

the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame

4) What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)

ans:

addressing

error detection

frame delimiting

5) When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

ans:

The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <---

6) What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)

ans:

identifies the network layer protocol

makes the connection with the upper layers

insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment

7) What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?

ans:

Logical Link Control sublayer

8) Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

ans:

       A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.

9.Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly identifies content that the frame data field may contain?

ans:

network layer packet

10) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

ans:

Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.

A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.

11) Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?

ans:

Collisions can decrease network performance.

12) Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?

ans:

network access

13) What is the primary purpose of ARP?

ans:

resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

14) Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

ans:

No collisions will occur on this link.

15) Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

ans:

A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.

A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.

16) Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)

ans:

copied into RAM during system startup

contains a 3 byte OUI

6 bytes long

17) Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)

ans:

minimizing of collisions

increase in the throughput of communications

18) What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)

ans:

copper UTP

optical fiber

19) Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

ans:

BA

20) After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?

ans:

any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first

21) Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

ans:

Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.

Host A will change the destination IP of the packet to 172.16.224.1 and forward the packet.

22)Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93, a mask of 255.255.248.0, and a default gateway of 172.16.224.1. Host A needs to send a packet to a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on its address and subnet mask. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)

ANS:

Host A will get a result of 172.16.224.0 from the AND process.

Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the host 172.16.231.78.

23) Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks?

answers:

• minimizing of collisions

• division into broadcast domains

24) Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?

• header field - preamble and stop frame

1 A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

X Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.

2 Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

X A, B, D, G

3 Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

X only computer D

4 Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

X enable secret

5 Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

X TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

X TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

X TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

6 Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

X 100 Base-FX

X 1000 Base LX

7 Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?

X 192.168.254.1

8 Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients. Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

X 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

9 Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?

X address translation

10 Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

X issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1

11 Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

X 172.16.4.63 /26

X 172.16.4.191 /26

X 172.16.4.95 /27

12 What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

X A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.

X All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.

X After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

13 In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

X NVRAM

14 A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

X router

15 Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

X transport

16 Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)

Router(config)# line vty 0 3 Router(config-line)# password c13c0 Router(config-line)# login

X The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.

X Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.

17 Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?

X Switch-6J#

18 Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

X 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0

19 When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

X when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20 When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?

X upper-layer connection-oriented protocols

21 A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most secure?

X enable secret

22 Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?

X a terminal emulation program

23 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)

X The connection type is called a VTY session.

X The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.

24 The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?

X service port number

25 Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)

X A single broadcast domain is present

X Five collision domains exist.

26 Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

X IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17

27 Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)

X segment1

X segment3

X segment4

28 What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)

X heirarchical

X uniquely identifies each host

X contains a network portion

29 Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?

X The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.

30 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)

X The destination port indicates a Telnet session.

X The return segment will contain a source port of 23.

31 Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?

X 198.133.219.25:80

32 During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?

X two applications communicating the data

33 Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)

X The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.

X The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.

34 Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?

X 3

35 Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?

X The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.

36 Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

X Connection 1 - straight-through cable

Connection 2 - crossover cable

Connection 3 - straight-through cable

37 Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

X The host's primary domain name server.

38 Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)

X The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.

X The data listed is associated with the transport layer.

39 Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

X 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

X 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

X 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

40 Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)

X physical addressing

41 Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?

X 0 to 1023

42 As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?

X 255.255.254.0

43 Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?

X London

44 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?

X Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75

45 Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?

X multiaccess

46 Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?

X subnet mask incorrectly entered

47 Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)

X 192.168.18.49

X 192.168.18.52

X 192.168.18.59

48 Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)

X The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.

X The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.

X The prefix of the computer address is /27.

49 Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

X leaving Dallas

50 Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?

X transport

network

1. QUESTION 1

Which of the following devices can an administrator use to segment their LAN? (Choose all that apply)

A. Hubs

B. Repeaters

C. Switches

D. Bridges

E. Routers

F. Media Converters

G. All of the above

Answer: C, D, E

1. QUESTION 2

Routers perform which of the following functions? (Select three)

A. Packet switching

B. Collision prevention on a LAN segment.

C. Packet filtering

D. Broadcast domain enlargement

E. Broadcast forwarding

F. Internetwork communication Answer: A, C, F

1. QUESTION 3

The Sales and Production networks are separated by a router as shown in the diagram below:

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the characteristics of the above networks broadcast and collision domains? (Select the two best answer choices)

A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.

B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.

C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.

D. There are four collision domains in the network.

E. There are five collision domains in the network.

F. There are seven collision domains in the network.

Answer: A, F

1. QUESTION 4

The CertKing corporate LAN consists of one large flat network. You decide to segment this LAN into two separate networks with a router. What will be the affect of this change?

A. The number of broadcast domains will be decreased.

B. It will make the broadcasting of traffic between domains more efficient between segments.

C. It will increase the number of collisions.

D. It will prevent segment 1's broadcasts from getting to segment 2.

E. It will connect segment 1's broadcasts to segment 2.

Answer: D

1. QUESTION 5

Which of the following are benefits of segmenting a network with a router? (Select all that apply)

A. Broadcasts are not forwarded across the router.

B. All broadcasts are completely eliminated.

C. Adding a router to the network decreases latency.

D. Filtering can occur based on Layer 3 information.

E. Routers are more efficient than switches and will process the data more quickly.

F. None of the above. Answer: A, D

1. QUESTION 6

The CertKing Texas branch network is displayed in the following diagram:

Of the following choices, which IP address should be assigned to the PC host?

A. 192.168.5.5

B. 192.168.5.32

C. 192.168.5.40

D. 192.168.5.63

E. 192.168.5.75

Answer: C.

1. QUESTION 7

The CertKing .com network is displayed in the diagram below:

Based on the diagram above, how many collision domains are present in the CertKing .com network??

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

E. Five

F. Six

G. Fourteen

Answer: B

1. QUESTION 8

Network topology exhibit

In the exhibit a part of the CertKing .com is displayed. Notice the CertKing 1 Switch and the CertKing 2 hub. Which of the devices shown can transmit simultaneously without causing collisions?

A. All hosts

B. Only hosts attached to the switch

C. All hosts attached to the hub and one host attached to the switch

D. All hosts attached to the switch and one host attached to the hub Answer: B

1. QUESTION 9

Network topology exhibit

Study the network topology exhibit carefully, in particular the two switches CertKing 1, CertKing 2, and the router CertKing 3. Which statements are true in this scenario? Select two.

A. All the devices in both networks will receive a broadcast to 255.255.255.255 sent by host CertKing A.

B. Only the devices in network 192.168.1.0 will a broadcast to 255.255.255.255 sent by host CertKing A.

C. All the devices on both networks are members of the same collision domain.

D. The hosts on the 192.168.1.0 network form one collision domain, and the hosts on the 192.168.2.0 network form a second collision domain.

E. Each host is in a separate collision domain.

Answer: B, D

1. QUESTION 10

Which address represents a unicast address?

A. 224.1.5.2

B. FFFF. FFFF. FFFF.

C. 192.168.24.59/30

D. 255.255.255.255

E. 172.31.128.255/18 Answer: E

1. QUESTION 11

Wit regard to bridges and switches, which of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. Switches are primarily software based while bridges are hardware based.

B. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcasts.

C. Bridges are frequently faster than switches.

D. Switches typically have a higher number of ports than bridges.

E. Bridges define broadcast domain while switches define collision domains.

F. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.

Answer: B D F

1. QUESTION 12

Which Layer 1 devices can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment? Select two

A. Switch

B. Router

C. NIC

D. hub

E. Repeater

F. RJ-45 transceiver

Answer: D, E

1. QUESTION 13

What information is supplied by CDP? Select three.

A. Device identifiers B. Capabilities list C. Platform

Answer: A, B, C

1. QUESTION 14

If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/30, what is the address of the subnetwork to which this host belongs?

D. 172.16.45.12

Answer: D

1. QUESTION 15

Exhibit

How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?

A. one

Answer: A

1. QUESTION 16

You have the binary number 10011101. Convert it to its decimal and hexadecimal equivalents. (Select two answer choices)

B. 0x9D

D. 157

Answer: B, D

1. QUESTION 17

The subnet mask on the serial interface of a router is expressed in binary as 11111000 for the last octet. How do you express the binary number 11111000 in decimal?

D. 248

Answer: D

1. QUESTION 18

Which one of the binary number ranges shown below corresponds to the value of the first octet in Class B address range?

C. 10000000-10111111

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 19

How would the number 231 be expressed as a binary number?

C. 11100111

1. QUESTION 20

How would the number 172 be expressed in binary form?

C. 10101100

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 21

The MAC address for your PC NIC is: C9-3F-32-B4-DC-19. What is the address of the OUI portion of this NIC card, expressed as a binary number?

D. 11001001-00111111-00110010

Answer: D

1. QUESTION 22

How do you express the binary number 10110011 in decimal form?

C. 179

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 24

Which two of the addresses below are available for host addresses on the subnet 192.168.15.19/28? (Select two answer choices)

A. 192.168.15.17

C. 192.168.15.29

Answer: A, C

1. QUESTION 25

You have a Class C network, and you need ten subnets. You wish to have as many addresses available for hosts as possible. Which one of the following subnet masks should you use?

C. 255.255.255.240

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 26

Which of the following is an example of a valid unicast host IP address? A. 172.31.128.255./18

Answer: A

1. QUESTION 27

How many subnetworks and hosts are available per subnet if you apply a /28 mask to the 210.10.2.0 class C network?

E. 14 networks and 14 hosts.

Answer: E

1. QUESTION 28

The CertKing network was assigned the Class C network 199.166.131.0 from the ISP. If the administrator at CertKing were to subnet this class C network using the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask, how may hosts will they be able to support on each subnet?

C. 30

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 29

What is the subnet for the host IP address 172.16.210.0/22?

C. 172.16.208.0

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 30

What is the subnet for the host IP address 201.100.5.68/28?

C. 201.100.5.64

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 31

3 addresses are shown in binary form below: A. 01100100.00001010.11101011.00100111 B. 10101100.00010010.10011110.00001111 C. 11000000.10100111.10110010.01000101 Regarding these three binary addresses in the above exhibit; which statements below are correct? (Select three)

A. Address C is a public Class C address.

D. Address A is a public Class A address.

E. Address B is a private Class B address.

Answer: A, D, E

1. QUESTION 32

What is the IP address range for the first octet in a class B address, in binary form?

C. 10000000-10111111

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 33

Which one of the binary bit patterns below denotes a Class B address?

B. 10xxxxxx

Answer: B

1. QUESTION 34

The CertKing network consists of 5 different departments as shown below:

You are a systems administrator at CertKing and you've just acquired a new Class C IP network. Which of one of the subnet masks below is capable of providing one useful subnet for each of the above departments (support, financial, sales & development) while still allowing enough usable host addresses to meet the needs of each department?

C. 255.255.255.224

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 35

Your network uses the172.12.0.0 class B address. You need to support 459 hosts per subnet, while accommodating the maximum number of subnets. Which mask would you use?

D. 255.255.254.0.

Answer: D

1. QUESTION 36

Using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the IP addresses below can you assign to the hosts on this subnet? (Select all that apply)

C. 92.11.178.93

D. 134.178.18.56

E. 192.168.16.87

Answer: C, D, E

1. QUESTION 37

Your ISP has assigned you the following IP address and subnet mask: IP address: 199.141.27.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Which of the following addresses can be allocated to hosts on the resulting subnet? (Select all that apply)

A. 199.141.27.2

C. 199.141.27.13

D. 199.141.27.11

Answer: A, C, D

1. QUESTION 38

The IP network 210.106.14.0 is subnetted using a /24 mask. How many usable networks and host addresses can be obtained from this?

A. 1 network with 254 hosts

Answer: A

1. QUESTION 39

Given that you have a class B IP address network range, which of the subnet masks below will allow for 100 subnets with 500 usable host addresses per subnet?

C. 255.255.254.0

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 40

You have a class C network, and you need to design it for 5 usable subnets with each subnet handling a minimum of 18 hosts each. Which of the following network masks should you use?

D. 255.255.255.224

Answer: D

1. QUESTION 41

The 213.115.77.0 network was subnetted using a /28 subnet mask. How many usable subnets and host addresses per subnet were created as a result of this?

E. 14 networks and 14 hosts

Answer: E

1. QUESTION 42

The 201.145.32.0 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many networks and IP hosts per network exists using this subnet mask?

C. 2 networks and 62 hosts

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 43

You have a class B network with a 255.255.255.0 mask. Which of the statements below are true of this network? (Select all valid answers)

A. There are 254 usable subnets.

D. There are 254 usable hosts per subnet.

Answer: A, D

1. QUESTION 44

How many usable IP addresses can you get from a conventional Class C address?

C. 254

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 45

Your ISP assigned you a full class B address space. From this, you need at least 300 sub-networks that can support at least 50 hosts each. Which of the subnet masks below are capable of satisfying your needs? (Select two). Sưu tầm bởi: www.daihoc.com.vn

B. 255.255.255.128

E. 255.255.255.192

Answer: B, E

1. QUESTION 46

Your work PC has the IP address 172.16.209.10 /22. What is the subnet of this address?

C. 172.16.208.0

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 47

You've been assigned the CIDR (classless inter domain routing) block of 115.64.4.0/22 from your ISP. Which of the IP addresses below can you use for a host? (Select all valid answers)

B. 115.64.7.64

C. 115.64.6.255

E. 115.64.5.128

Answer: B, C, E

1. QUESTION 48

A CertKing remote office branch is set up as shown in the diagram below:

All of the hosts in the above exhibit are connected with each other via the single Catalyst switch. Which of the following statements correctly describe the addressing scheme of this network? (Select three) Sưu tầm bởi: www.daihoc.com.vn

B. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128.

C. The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1.

F. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses. Answer: B, C, F

1. QUESTION 49

The CertKing network is shown in the following diagram:

In the above network diagram, what are the broadcast addresses of the subnets? (Select three)

B. 172.16.95.255

E. 172.16.47.255

F. 172.16.79.255

Answer: B, E, F

1. QUESTION 50

Which one of the following varieties of NAT utilizes different ports to map multiple IP addresses to a single globally registered IP address?

C. NAT Overloading

Answer: C

1. QUESTION 51

On the topic of VLSM, which one of the following statements best describes the concept of the route aggregation?

B. Combining routes to multiple networks into one supernet.

Answer: B

1. QUESTION 52

You have a single Class C IP address and a point-to-point serial link that you want to implement VLSM on. Which subnet mask is the most efficient?

D. 255.255.255.252

Answer: D

1. QUESTION 53

You have a network that supports VLSM and you need to reduce IP address waste in your point to point WAN links. Which of the masks below would you use?

B. /30

Answer: B

1. QUESTION 54

How would you express the binary number: 10101010 in its decimal and hexadecimal forms?

B. Decimal=170, hexadecimal=AA

Answer: B

1. QUESTION 55

Which of the following IP hosts would be valid for PC users, assuming that a /27 network mask was used for all of the networks? (Choose all that apply.)

B. 83.121.178.93

C. 134.178.18.56

D. 192.168.19.37

Answer: B, C, D

.

1. QUESTION 56

You are the network administrator at CertKing . CertKing has been provided with the network address 165.100.27.0/24. The CertKing CEO wants to know how many subnetworks this address provides, and how many hosts can be supported on each subnet. What would your reply be? (Choose all that apply) Sưu tầm bởi: www.daihoc.com.vn

A. One network with 254 hosts. .

Answer: A

1. QUESTION 57

In networks that support VLSM, which network mask should be used for point-topoint WAN links in order to reduce the waste of IP addresses?

B. /30

Answer: B

1. QUESTION 58

The CertKing network has been divided into 5 separate departments as displayed below:

Using a Class C IP network, which subnet mask will provide one usable subnet per department while allowing enough usable host addresses for each department specified in the graphic?

C. 255.255.255.224

Answer: C

1. Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?

• Physical

2. An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?

• OTDR

3. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.

• It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.

4. When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

• when connecting a host to a switch

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?

• crossover cable

6. Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?

• wireless

7. In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?

• RJ-45

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?

• generally uses lasers as the light source

9. Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?

• backbone cable

10. What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)

• goodput

• throughput

• bandwidth

11. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?

• the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire

12. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?

• create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media

13. In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?

• fiber

14. What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?

• Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.

15. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet? • Options three is right answer (kolmas)

16. What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?

• more host mobility

17. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?

• the twisting of the wires in the cable

1. Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)

• the geographic scope of the network

• the physical layer implementation

• he number of hosts to be interconnected

2. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?

• 00-0c-85-cf-65-c0

3. Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)

• non-deterministic

• less overhead

• collisions exist

4. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

• Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.

5. What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.) • Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD defined as placement of data frames on the media

• Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media

6. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)

• Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.

• Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.

7. A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?

• physical topology

8. What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

• is used for timing synchronization with alternating patterns of ones and zeros 9. What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

• Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card

• Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

• Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.

11. Refer to the exhibit. How many unique CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?

• 4

12. Refer to the exhibit. A frame is being sent from the PC to the laptop. Which source MAC and IP addresses will be included in the frame as it leaves RouterB? (Choose two.)

• source MAC - Fa0/1 on RouterB • source IP - PC

13. Which sublayer of the data link layer prepares a signal to be transmitted at the physical layer?

• MAC

14. What two facts are true when a device is moved from one network or subnet to another? (Choose two.)

• The device will still operate at the same Layer 2 address.

• The Layer 3 address must be reassigned to allow communications to the new network. 15. What is a function of the data link layer?

• provides for the exchange data over a common local media

16. What is a characteristic of a logical point-to-point topology?

• The media access control protocol can be very simple.

17. What is a primary purpose of encapsulating packets into frames?

• facilitate the entry and exit of data on media

18. What is the primary purpose of the trailer in a data link layer frame?

• support frame error detection

19. What are three characteristics of valid Ethernet Layer 2 addresses? (Choose three.)

• They are 48 binary bits in length.

• They are considered physical addresses.

• They are generally represented in hexadecimal format.

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.

• /27

2. Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

• 172.16.4.155 /26

• 172.16.4.193 /26

• 172.16.4.207 /27 3. Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)

• Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.

• IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.

4. Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based • upon a given IP address and subnet mask?

• binary ANDing 5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?

• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

6. What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?

• 255.255.255.0

7. Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)

• 10.35.66.70

• 192.168.99.5

• 172.18.88.90

8. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?

• This is a network address.

9. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?

• 172.16.192.160

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server’s properties to allow connectivity to the network?

• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33

11. Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)

• servers

• network printers

• routers

12. hich of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)

• larger address space

• data types and classes of service

• authentication and encryption

13. What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?

• expanded addressing capabilities

14. What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)

• The router will discard the packet.

• The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.

15. Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?

• Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.

16. How many bits make up an IPv4 address?

• 32 17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

• NAT is required for the host A network.

18. What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)

• is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain

• varies in length

• is used to forward packets

19. What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?

• a network

20. What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?

• 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000

21. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?

• 255.255.255.192

1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another? • destination network address

2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

• source and destination IP address 3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?

• The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.

4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

• time-to-live

5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?

• network portion

6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?

• 192.133.219.1 7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?

• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks

9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?

• static

10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)

• The router discards the packet.

• The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry. 11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)

• purpose

12. What is a component of a routing table entry?

• the next-hop address 13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)

• router

• firewall

14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)

• performance degradation

• security issues

15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?

• 4

16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.) If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router. If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.

• If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router. • If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?

• 10.10.10.6

18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)

• Replace S2 with a router.

• Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)

• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.

• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.

20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)

• provide routers with up-to-date routing tables

• consume bandwidth to exchange route information

21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?

• A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists

1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)

• This contains a Telnet request.

• This is a TCP header. 2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?

• 0 to 1023

3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?

• to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application

4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?

• transport

5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?

• reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged

6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?

• to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data

7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)

• identifies the communicating applications

• identifies multiple conversations between the hosts

8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed? • session establishment

9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

• A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.

• Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.

10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?

• source port 11. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)

• low overhead

• connectionless

12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?

• window size

13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?

• UDP

14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?

• source and destination 15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?

• flow control

• session establishment

• numbering and sequencing

16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?

• The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.

17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?

• minimal delays in data delivery

18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?

• 80

19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?

• TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.

1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?

• FTP

2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)

• applications

• services

3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)

• centralized administration

• security is easier to enforce

4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?

• used by the server to resolve names

5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?

• DNS

6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)

• DNS

• SMTP

• POP

7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)

• acts as both a client and server within the same communication.

• hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.

• can be used in client-server networks.

8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)

• HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client

• Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access 9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)

• MTA

• SMTP

10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?

• does not support encryption

11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)

• receives email from the client’s MUA

• passes email to the MDA for final delivery

• uses SMTP to route email between servers

12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)

• HTTP

• HTTPS

13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)

• Security is difficult to enforce.

• A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server. 14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?

• application

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?

• 80

16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)

• decentralized resources

• resource sharing without a dedicated server 17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?

• SMB

18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.) • use daemons

• initiate data exchanges

• may upload data to servers

19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?

• provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network

20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?

• uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service

1. Which two layers of the OSI model have the same functions as the TCP/IP model Network Access Layer? (Choose two.)

• Physical

• Data Link

2. What is a primary function of the trailer information added by the data link layer encapsulation?

• supports error detection

3. During the encapsulation process, what occurs at the data link layer?

• The physical address is added.

4. What device is considered an intermediary device?

• switch 5.Which layer encapsulates the segment into packets?

• network

6. Which statements correctly identify the role of intermediary devices in the network? (Choose three.)

• determine pathways for data

• retime and retransmit data signals

• manage data flows

7. What can be identified by examining the network layer header?

• the path to use to reach the destination host

8. What is the proper order of the layers of the OSI model from the highest layer to the lowest layer?

• application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, physical

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which three labels correctly identify the network types for the network segments that are shown? (Choose three.) • Network A — WAN

• Network B — WAN

• Network C — LAN

• Network A — LAN 10. What are the key functions of encapsulation? (Choose three.) • allows modification of the original data before transmission

• identifies pieces of data as part of the same communication

• ensures that data pieces can be directed to the correct receiving end device

• enables the reassembly of complete messages

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which networking term describes the data interleaving process represented in the graphic?

• multiplexing

12. What is a PDU?

• a layer specific encapsulation 13. Refer to the exhibit. “Cell A” at IP address 10.0.0.34 has established an IP session with “IP Phone 1″ at IP address 172.16.1.103. Based upon the graphic, which device type best describes the function of wireless device “Cell A?”

• an end device

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only end devices?

• E, F, H, I, J 15. Refer to the exhibit. Which term correctly identifies the device type that is included in the green area?

• intermediary 16. Which three statements best describe a Local Area Network (LAN)? (Choose three.)

• A LAN is usually in a single geographical area.

• The network is administered by a single organization.

• A LAN provides network services and access to applications for users within a common organization.

17. Refer to the exhibit. What type of network is shown?

• LAN

18. What is the purpose of the TCP/IP Network Access layer?

• detailing the components that make up the physical link and how to access it

19. Which characteristic correctly refers to end devices in a network?

• originate data flow

20. What is the primary purpose of Layer 4 port assignment?

• to identify the processes or services that are communicating within the end devices 21. Select the statements that are correct concerning network protocols. (Choose three.)

• define the structure of layer specific PDU’s

• outline the functions necessary for communications between layers

• require layer dependent encapsulations

1. Which of the following descriptions are true regarding the management connections on a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

• They are non-network connections.

• They are used for initial router configuration.

• They are asynchronous serial ports.

2. The console port can be used for which of the following? (Choose three.)

• debugging.

• password recovery.

• troubleshooting.

3. Which of the following describes the function of a WAN?

• provides connectivity over a large geographic area. 4. An internetwork must include which of the following? (Choose three.)

• switching.

• dynamic or static routing.

• consistent end-to-end addressing. 5. ABC Company just purchased three new routers to start their company network. Which items are needed to establish a terminal session between a PC and the router for the initial configuration? (Choose three.)

• terminal emulation software.

• rollover cable.

• RJ-45 to DB-9 connector.

6.Terminal emulation software, such as HyperTerminal, can be used to configure a router. Which of the following HyperTerminal options shown in the graphic are correctly set to allow configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose three.)

• data bits.

• parity.

• stop bits.

7. Which of the following devices are used in the construction of a WAN? (Choose three.)

• routers.

• communication servers.

• modems.

8. Which of the following are functions of RAM? (Choose three.) • contains startup configuration file. • stores routing table.

holds fast switching cache.

• stores running configuration file. 9. Why is a console connection to a router or switch preferred when troubleshooting? (Choose two.)

• does not depend on network services. • displays startup and error messages by default. • does not require special components. 10. Which basic components do a router and a standard desktop PC have in common? (Choose three.) • CPU.

• input/output interfaces.

• system bus. 11. During the initial configuration of a 2600 series Cisco router, which cable is required for connecting a PC to the console port?

• rollover.

12. A router is composed of many internal components. Which of the following components stores a copy of the router’s configuration file?

• non-volatile random access memory. 13. What contains the instructions that a router uses to control the flow of traffic through its interfaces?

• configuration files.

14. Several Ethernet hosts on a LAN need the gateway services of a Cisco 2500 series router. Which of the following would be needed to physically connect a router to all of the hosts on the LAN? (Choose two.)

• straight-through cables between a switch and hosts on a LAN.

• a straight-through cable between the transceiver on a router and a switch. 15. Which router component holds the configuration file when power is lost?

• non-volatile random access memory.

16. Which of the following layers of the OSI model are incorporated in WAN standards? (Choose two.)

physical layer.

• data link layer.

17. Which of the following are true regarding router interfaces? (Choose three.)

• connect the router to the network for packet entry and exit.

• can be on the motherboard or a separate module.

• connect the router to LANs and WANs. 18. Which of the following tasks can be accomplished through a management connection on a router? (Choose three.)

• troubleshooting problems.

• monitoring the system.

• configuring the router.

19. What do routers use to select the best path for outgoing data packets?

• routing tables.

20. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.)

• retains contents when power is removed.

• stores the startup configuration file.

21. Select the statements that correctly describe flash memory in a 2600 series router? (Choose two.)

• can be upgraded with single in-line memory modules.

• stores Cisco IOS software images.